Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 03:21
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What is the irony of life according to you?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
How did you become popular in school?
There's no rule.